Yes, it is possible. We need to understand the significance of intercept term in a regression model. The intercept term shows model prediction without any independent variable i.e. mean prediction. The formula of R² = 1 – ∑(y – y´)²/∑(y – ymean)² where y´ is predicted value.
When intercept term is present, R² value evaluates your model wrt. to the mean model. In absence of intercept term (ymean), the model can make no such evaluation, with large denominator, ∑(y – y´)²/∑(y)² equation’s value becomes smaller than actual, resulting in higher R².